SSC CGL 2014 Questions Answer Key and Cut off

Hey friends...

Here I am posting Questions asked in SSC CGL 2014 and respective answer. Hope it will be seful for SSC Aspirants!

SSC CGL 2014

Name the Italian traveller who visited the Vijayanagar empire in 1420AD?
a)Edoardo Barbosa
b)Nicolode Conti
c) Abdur Razzag
d)Domingos Paes

Ans b

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Prasar Bharti Engineering Assistant Exam 2013 Complete Solution

Hello folks,

Here I'm providing the complete questions and solutions for Prasar Bharti Engineering Assistant Exam 2013 Complete Questions and answers held on 21 July 2013.

1.  Identify the leader of Satya Shodhak Samaj:

A. Dayanand Saraswathi

B. Jyotiba Phule

C. Gopal Krishna Gokhale

D. Dadoba Pandurang

2. The highway road  network in Germany is called:

A. Autoroute

B. Autobahn

C. Autostrade

D. Autoway

3. When lactate is used to synthesize glucose/glycogen, the process is called:

A. Gluconeogenesis

B. Glucogenesis

C. Glycogenesis

D. Glyconeogenesis

4. If Gross domestic Product is greater than Gross National Product, it means

A. Indirect taxes are greater than subsidies.

B. subsidies are greater than Indirect taxes.

C. Imports are greater than exports.

D. exports are greater than imports.

5. Marginal cost of nth unit is equal to

A. TCn - TC n-1

B. TCn - TC n+1

C. TCn + TC n-1

D. TCn + TC n+1

6. One of the following statements is wrong:

A. Competition is free markets promotes efficiency in the working of capitalistic economy

B. The main objective of capitalism is to bring about a socialistic pattern of society.

C. Profit motive is the heart of all the institutions of capitalism

D. private ownership of property is indospensible for proper functioning of capitalism

7.The law of demand expresses

A. an opposite relationship between the demand of a commodity and it's supply.

B. a direct supply between income of a  consumer and his demand

C. a positive relationship between the income of a  consumer and his demand

D. an inverse relationship between the quantity demanded and the price of a commodity.

8. A netadditiontoalready existing stock of capital means:

A. positive net Saving

B. improved technology

C. increased production

D. positive net investment

9.  The system of delegated legislation has  enhanced the power of the

A. Bureaucracy

B. Legislature

C. Legislature Committees

D.Council of ministers

10. Martin Luther was related to

A. reformation

B. geographical discovery

C. restoration

D. renaissance

11. The idea of popular Sovereignty was advocated by:

A. Locke

B. Rousseau

C. Austin

D. Hobbes

12. Without prior intimation, any member can raise a question  on any issue in parliament during

A. Zero hour

B.recess Time

C. Closure motion

D. Question Hour

13. Which committee recommended Fundamental duties for the citizens?

A. Swaran singh

B. raj narain

C. Balwant rai

D. Patel

14. The idea of" reverse discrimination" implies

A. Discrimination in decreasing order.

B. equating rich and poor in electoral arena

C.bestowing favored treatment to the hitherto deprived sections

D. establishing institutional checks against arbitrary distinction

15. Chola's local self government had assemblies of _____ types.

A. 4

B. 5

C. 6

D. 3

16.ITCZ refers to __________ Zone

A. inter Trade Center

B. Inter Tropical convergence

C. Inter Transitional Center

D.Inter Transitional convergence

17. Stream Frequency is the

A. Area required to sustain one unit length  of  the channel

B. Number of channels per unit area

C. Channel area per stream

D. Channel length per unit area

18.  Which of the following seas is without  coastline?

A. Sargaso sea

B. Sea of Okhotsk

C. Tasmania sea

D. White sea

19. Identify the leader of Satya Shodhak Samaj

A. Dayanand Saraswathi

B. Jyotiba Phule

C. Gopal Krishna Gokhale

D. Dadoba Pandurang

For complete question set Click here

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SSC CGL 2012 Evening Shift First Sitting ~ Questions and Answers

Hi friends,


In this post I'm providing the complete questions asked in SSC Combine graduate level  Exam (Tier 1) on July Afternoon session and  it's  complete solution. All the questions and solution were collected from memory and with help of some friends.

1. The apparatus used to locate submerged objects?

Ans: SONAR

2. who decides the disputes regarding election of President?

Ans: The election commission

3. main cause for agitation for separation of states in India ?
Growing Regional imbalances.

4. the law of "use and disuse " theory was proposed by?

Lamarck

5. which of the revenue earned by Union Govt is not distributed among State Governments?

Excise duty

6. The substance that cause worst air pollution?

Carbon Monoxide.

7. Two bodies of the same mass are thrown with equal speed from the top of a 

tower simultaneously. one body (x) is thrown  vertically downwards. The 

other (y) is thrown horizontally. Then:

Ans:  x reaches ground with greater Kinetic Energy

8. Near which one of the following citeis, the Palitana Temples are situated?

(A) Bhav Nagar

(B)Mount Abu

(C)Mearke

(D)Ujjain

Ans: B

9. The orcket which gives us information about Mars is:

Ans: Cassinie.

10. JDBC stands for?

Ans: Java Database Connectivity

11. Correct among the following?

(A) Siksha -- astrology

(B)Nirukta - metre

(C)Jyotisha -- phonetics

(D)Vyakarana -- grammar

Ans: D

12.  The famous book "A better India, A better world" is written by?

Ans: N R narayana Murthy

13. The world's fastest growing water plant is 

Ans: Water hyacinth

14.  the international agreement to reduce greenhouse gases between 2008-

2012 is called?

Ans: Kyoto Protocol

15. Which of the following has recently produced the first cloned camel?

Dubai

16. The Newzealanders are also known as?

Kiwis

17. Find the odd one out?

Ans : FCI- Financial assisatance to merchants

18.Who is the first Law Officer of the Governemt of India?

Attorney general of India

19. "Milk of Magnesia" is a  suspension of?

Magnesium hydroxide

20. If all plants of the world dies, all the animals would also die due to 

shortage of?

Ans: Oxygen

21. A person opens his mouth on heraing a thunder  in order to:

equalise pressure of air on both sides of the ear drum

22. " El Nino effect" is closely related to?

Ans:  Gulf Current.

23. If a bacterium cell divides in every 20 minutes, how many bacteria will be 

formed in 2 hours?

 Ans: if we count from 8:00pm, the division occur at  8:20, 8:40, 9:00,9:20, 

9:40, 10:00.

Thus, totally 6 times.

So, 2^6 = 64.

24. The state of Jhansi was made a part of the British empire in India through 

the :

Ans: Doctrine of Lapse

25. Pila globosa is used as biofilter in cleaning pollution of water by:

Algal Blooms

26. As per 2011 cencus, in India the number of females per thousand is?

Ans:    940

27. Chemical name of Plaster of apris is?

ans:  Calcium sulphate hemihydrate

28. Who was the first envoy of the east Company to meet Jahangir in 1608 A. 

D?

William Hawkins

29. Carbohydrates are compounds of?

Carbon. Oxygen and hydrogen

30. The growth of Bacteris is measurred by?

hemacytometer

31. A government is classified as federal or unitary on the basis of?

Relations between the center and states

32. EVN stands

Ans:   Electronic Voting machine

33. When ice is heated from 0deg to 1- deg , the volume of water?

First increases, then decreases

34. Mammals form urea in the?

Ans:  Liver

35. wanchoo committee deals with

36. Which of the following wrongly matched?

(i) Tropic of cancer - 23 1/2 N Latitude

(ii) Tropic of Capricon - 66 1/2 N Latitude

(iii) International Date Line- 0 Longitude

(iv) Antarctic Circle - 66 1/2 S Latitude

Ans:  (ii) and (iii)

37. The tributary of river Indus which flows through Himachal  Pradesh is:

Ans : sutlej

38 which of the following is an essential ingredient of parliamnetary 

givernemnt?

Ans: A written consititution

39. Through which states does the river Chambal flows?

UP , MP, Rajastan

40. The contents of memory will not be lost, when the power goes off:

(A) ROM

(B)EPROM

(C)EEPROM

(D)All of above

Ans:  D

41. Simple Goitre is a disease affecting

Ans: thyroid glands

42. The word secular is  a part of the preamble of the constitution of India

Ans:  afte the 42nd amendment

43. The programme which is being implemented in all the districts of the 

country is:

Ans:  MGNRGE Programme

44. Which one of the following Cricketers has been declarted by the ICC as ' 

Cricketer of the Twentieth Century'  ?

Kapil Dev

45. As per the 2011 population census, the most  populous state in the country 

is?

Uttar Pardesh

46. Which one of the following is not an internal factor for industrial 

sickness?

Technological  Obsolescence

47. Vikrama shila University was founded by?

Dharmapala

48. Acidity of rain is measured by?

pH - meter

49. For which one of the following, are honey bees used?

Apiculture

50. Chlorination is 

Ans:  adding a small amount of chloride to contaminate water

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SSC CGL 2012 July Tier 1 Exam - Reasoning Part Questions

Friends,

In this post I'm providing the complete questions asked in SSC Combine graduate level  Exam (Tier 1) on July Afternoon session and  their  complete solution. All the questions and solution were collected from memory and with help of some friends.





REASONING

1. EVFU : TGSH :: IRJQ : ?
A. KWLX, B. PKOL, C. OLPK, D. PKLO

3. CFIL : XURO :: ORUX : ?
A. ROLI, B. RITO, C. LIFC, D. MJFC

4. CFIL : ABCD :: ? : WXYZ
A. ZYXW, B. DCBA, C. JHPS, D. XURO

7. Man : Mammal :: ?
A. Hail : Snow
B. Native : Inhabitant
C. Offspring : Family
D. Liberty: Literate


8. 1 : 8 :: 4 : ? (64, 512, 128, 32)


9. 6 : 2 :: 8 : ? (1, 3, 7, 5)

Find odd:
10. 81, 93, 66, 72

11. Frog, Tortoise, Crab, Fish

12. 186-69, 168-570, 1001-100, 5270-2936

13. (64, 216), (216, 02), (343, 01), (125, 27)

14. J & K, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh

15. IVEF, VEENS, EINN, VEIIDD

16. 17, 27, 37, 47

17. 6 3 8 5 2, 5 2 6 3 8, 2 8 7 5 1, 8 5 3 6 2

18. Number, Form, Weight, Size

19. Commission, Team, Agenda, Board

20. Addition, Subtract, Multiplication, Division

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SSC CGL 2012 July Tier 1 Exam - Questions and Answer key

 

Hi friends,


In this post I'm providing the complete questions asked in SSC Combine graduate level  Exam (Tier 1) on July Afternoon session and  their  complete solution. All the questions and solution were collected from memory and with help of some friends.






1. Which  is NOT a correct statement?
(a) Phenols are acidic.
(b) in Benzene all atoms lie in ONE plane.
(c) Methylated spirit contains only Methanol.
(d)Dilute solutions contains less amount of solute.


Ans: C




2. The infective stage of Malaria is?
Ans: Sporozoite.






3. The treaty of Verailles restores Alsace - Lorraine to:
Ans: France.






4.The Asokan Edicts were deciphered first by:
Ans: James Prinsep




5.  Photosynthetic vesicles found in Bacterium is called ?
Ans: Chromatophore




6. What type of mirror is used in a view finding mirror of a vehicle?
Ans:  Convex Mirror






7. What is m - commerce?


Ans:  Mobile Commerce






8. Who said that the directive principles of state Policy are just like " a chequeue on bank payable at the convenience of bank"?
K. T . Shah




9. Who favoured the Arctic Home Theory of the Aryans?
Ans: B. G. Tilak


10. A plant known only in cultivation having arisen under domestication is called?
Ans: Cultigen






11. Pyroligneous acid obtained from wood contains:?
Ans: 10% Acetic acid.




12. Union Carbide India Ltd. manufactured essentially:


Ans:  Petrochemicals.




13. The iron and steel plant in Bihar is at?
Ans:  Bokaro


14. Who was the teacher of Gauthama Buddha?


Ans:  Alara Kalama




15. The 34th National Games were held in 2011 in?
Ans:  Jharkhand


16. Ram Sharan Sharma , who died in 2011 was an eminent:
Ans:  Indologist




17Which bank was the first to introduce ATMs to the world?
Citi Bank


18 . tohra is sacred book of
Judaism 




19. 98 th science congress was held in 2011 at?
Chennai




20. The red, orange and yellow colours of leaves are due to?
Carotenoids.






21.The state which has registered the highest population growth rae according to 2001 census is?


Uttar pradesh




22. In which direction Earth's magnetic field extend?
North to South


23.Which economist is known as the "Master of partial analysis"?
Alfred Marshall






24. The most densely populated state in India is?
(A) Kerala
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C)West Bengal
(D)Tamil Nadu


Ans: B




25. The ultimate source of energy in a hydro electric power station is?
Ans: the potential energy of water.




26. Which colour of light has the highest velocity through  vacuum?
(A) Blue
(B) Red
(C) Green
(D) All of above


Ans: D




27. Mamtha sharma was appointed in 2011 as the chairperson of:
Ans: national Commission for women






28 The biggest planet in the solar system is?
Ans: Jupiter




29. The study of population is known as?
Ans: Demography.




30. The seat of Kerala High Court is located at?
Ans: Ernakulam




31 The prose collection of vedic poems is called
Ans: samhitas


32. the polar bears hold cures for
Ans: Type II Diabetes




33 India making " Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements" (DTAA) with other countries for the promotion of:
Ans:  Bilateral Trade


34. Human development index was formulated by?
Ans: UNDP






35. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Ans  :  Salt petre - potassium nitrate




36. author of pakistan : beyond the crisis state is ?


Ans : Maleeha Lodhi


37. Low cost housing is an example for:
Ans Social wants


38 Who was the first speaker of Lok sabha?
Ans: G V Mavlankar




39. Peninsular India has the following zonal soil types:
Ans: Red and Yellow soil




40. Brain drain  has been caused by?
Ans: Lack of employment opportunities.

Do You know any other questions?? Please comment it here..!!!

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Results- SSC CHSL - Combined Higher Secondary Examination

 

Hello,

SSC (STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION ) has announced the results for Combined Higher Secondary Examination (CHSL) held on 4th&11thDecember 2011 for recruitment to the post of Data Entry Operators and Lower Division Clerks at various centers all over the country.

To see the results for LDC category  CLICK HERE..!!!

To see the results for DEO category  CLICK HERE..!!!

If you have any doubts or queries, feel free to comment it here.!!!
Anyway, all the important details regarding results are provided below.

 Totally, 20168 candidates qualified provisionally for typing test for LDC and 10639 candidates for skill test for DEO in the written part of the examination and are thus eligible to be called for Type Test/ Data Entry Tests subject to their fulfilling all eligibility conditions and also correctness of the information furnished by them in their application.

1. Candidates qualified for Typing Test for LDC

Note: The number of UR candidates shown in above table, 3494 OBC, 447 SC and 69 ST candidates are provisionally qualifying at cut-off fixed for UR candidates subject to fulfilling the age limit for UR candidates.

2. Candidates qualified for Skill Test for Data Entry Operator

Note: The number of UR candidates shown in above table, 2253 OBC, 275 SC and 40 ST candidates are provisionally qualifying at cut-off fixed for UR candidates subject to fulfilling the age limit for UR candidates.

3. The above said lists are purely provisional and subject to the recommended candidates fulfilling all the eligibility conditions prescribed for the respective post in the Notice of Examination and also subject to thorough verification of their identity with reference to their photographs, signatures, hand writings, etc., on the application forms, admission certificates, etc. The candidature of the candidates are liable to the canceled by respective Regional Directors in case candidates are found not fulfilling the eligibility conditions or any other genuine reasons including but not limited to resorting to unfair means.

4. For candidates belonging to reserved categories for whom certain percentage of vacancies are reserved as per Government Policy, the category status is indicated against their Roll Numbers. It is important to note that some of these candidates have been declared qualified only for the category mentioned against their Roll Numbers. If any candidate does not actually belong to the category mentioned against his/her name, he/she may not be eligible to be included in the list. It is, therefore, in the interest of the candidates concerned to immediately contact the respective Regional Office of the Commission in all such cases where they do not belong to the category shown against their Roll Numbers. Candidates whose names and Roll No. do not match should also bring such mismatch to the notice of the concerned regional offices for detailed examination.

5. Schedule for holding the Type Test/Data Entry Skill Test on computers will available on Commission’s website shortly. In this connection, the following points are brought to the notice of the candidates.

Skill Test for Data Entry Operator :

a) The Skill Test will be taken on computers.

b) The ‘Data Entry Speed’ Skill Test would be qualifying in nature. Candidates allowed to take this test, will have to qualify the test at the prescribed speed on computer, to be provided by the Commission or the agency authorized by the Commission to conduct such skill test at the centre/ venue so notified.

c) None of the candidates including PH candidates who qualify in the written part of the examination will be exempted from the skill test as passing of the skill test is pre-condition and one of the essential qualification for appointment to the post of Data Entry Operator.

d) Only such candidates who qualify in the skill test at a speed of not less than 8,000 key depressions per hour will be eligible for being recommended for appointment as per their position in the merit list.

e) The duration of the said skill test will be 15 (fifteen) minutes and printed matter in English containing about 2,000 – 2,200 strokes/ key depressions would be given to each candidate who would enter the same in the computer.

Skill Test of LDC

a) The Skill Test will be taken on computers.

b) Typing test will be qualifying in nature and will be conducted only in English or in Hindi.

English Typing @ 35 w.p.m. (Time allowed 10 minutes) (30 minutes for VH candidates)

Hindi Typing @ 30 w.p.m. (Time allowed 10 minutes) 30 minutes for VH candidates).

(35 w.p.m. and 30 w.p.m. corresponds to 10500 Key Depressions Per Hour/ 9000 Key Depressions Per Hour on an average of 5 Key Depressions for each word).

6. Representations received from candidates about incorrect Question and their Answer in the question papers used by the Commission in this examination have been carefully examined and marks moderated suitably.

7. Regional Offices will verify the options of the candidates in the two lists with reference to their applications. Before calling them for the skill tests candidates who have not exercised options for any posts have been considered for all posts. This, however, will not confer any right on them for selection, as the Commission follows the policy of considering candidates who have exercised option for inclusion in the select list and if any surplus vacancies are available, reserve list is prepared for considering candidates who had failed to exercise options.

If you have any doubts or queries, feel free to comment it here.!!!

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SSC Combined Higher Secondary exam 4 december 2011 Evening Session - answer key

Best wishes to all,

Here I'm posting the solution for SSC DATA ENTRY OPERATOR / LDC ,combined higher secondary exam 4 dec 2011. 
[Evening session]

 1. 012 NL5
2. 013 ML5
3. 014 KN5
4. 015 PK5

Test Form No:-012NL5 For General Candidates

(Q.1)C (Q.2)D (Q.3)C (Q.4)A (Q.5)A

(Q.6)B (Q.7)D (Q.8)D (Q.9)D (Q.10)D

(Q.11)C (Q.12)C (Q.13)C (Q.14)A (Q.15)D

(Q.16)D (Q.17)D (Q.18)C (Q.19)C (Q.20)D

(Q.21)B (Q.22)A (Q.23)C (Q.24)A (Q.25)D

(Q.26)B (Q.27)C (Q.28)A (Q.29)D (Q.30)D

(Q.31)B (Q.32)B (Q.33)C (Q.34)C (Q.35)D

(Q.36)D (Q.37)A (Q.38)C (Q.39)C (Q.40)B

(Q.41)C (Q.42)B (Q.43)C (Q.44)C (Q.45)D

(Q.46)B (Q.47)A (Q.48)B (Q.49)A (Q.50)A

(Q.51)B (Q.52)B (Q.53)B (Q.54)C (Q.55)A

(Q.56)A (Q.57)A (Q.58)D (Q.59)C (Q.60)A

(Q.61)B (Q.62)C (Q.63)A (Q.64)B (Q.65)A

(Q.66)A (Q.67)D (Q.68)D (Q.69)B (Q.70)B

(Q.71)A (Q.72)B (Q.73)C (Q.74)A (Q.75)C

(Q.76)C (Q.77)C (Q.78)B (Q.79)A (Q.80)C

(Q.81)C (Q.82)B (Q.83)B (Q.84)B (Q.85)C

(Q.86)C (Q.87)D (Q.88)D (Q.89)C (Q.90)B

(Q.91)C (Q.92)B (Q.93)A (Q.94)B (Q.95)D

(Q.96)B (Q.97)C (Q.98)A (Q.99)A (Q.100)C

(Q.101)C (Q.102)B (Q.103)D (Q.104)A (Q.105)D

(Q.106)C (Q.107)C (Q.108)C (Q.109)A (Q.110)B

(Q.111)C (Q.112)D (Q.113)A (Q.114)B (Q.115)C

(Q.116)B (Q.117)B (Q.118)A (Q.119)B (Q.120)D

(Q.121)C (Q.122)C (Q.123)C (Q.124)B (Q.125)B

(Q.126)B (Q.127)D (Q.128)C (Q.129)B (Q.130)A

(Q.131)B (Q.132)B (Q.133)A (Q.134)C (Q.135)C

(Q.136)B (Q.137)A (Q.138)B (Q.139)B (Q.140)C

(Q.141)C (Q.142)B (Q.143)C (Q.144)A (Q.145)D

(Q.146)D (Q.147)B (Q.148)C (Q.149)B (Q.150)D

(Q.151)A (Q.152)B (Q.153)D (Q.154)D (Q.155)C

(Q.156)B (Q.157)A (Q.158)B (Q.159)B (Q.160)B

(Q.161)C (Q.162)B (Q.163)C (Q.164)D (Q.165)C

(Q.166)D (Q.167)A (Q.168)C (Q.169)A (Q.170)C

(Q.171)C (Q.172)B (Q.173)D (Q.174)B (Q.175)C

(Q.176)D (Q.177)A (Q.178)D (Q.179)A (Q.180)A

(Q.181)B (Q.182)A (Q.183)C (Q.184)D (Q.185)A

(Q.186)B (Q.187)D (Q.188)D (Q.189)D (Q.190)C

(Q.191)B (Q.192)D (Q.193)A (Q.194)C (Q.195)B

(Q.196)B (Q.197)B (Q.198)B (Q.199)D (Q.200)B

Test Form No:-013ML5 For VH Candidates

(Q.1)D (Q.2)A (Q.3)B (Q.4)A (Q.5)D

(Q.6)C (Q.7)C (Q.8)B (Q.9)B (Q.10)C

(Q.11)C (Q.12)D (Q.13)A (Q.14)D (Q.15)B

(Q.16)A (Q.17)C (Q.18)D (Q.19)D (Q.20)D

(Q.21)D (Q.22)D (Q.23)B (Q.24)B (Q.25)B

(Q.26)B (Q.27)C (Q.28)B (Q.29)C (Q.30)B

(Q.31)A (Q.32)B (Q.33)B (Q.34)C (Q.35)C

(Q.36)B (Q.37)D (Q.38)A (Q.39)B (Q.40)D

(Q.41)B (Q.42)C (Q.43)C (Q.44)B (Q.45)B

(Q.46)D (Q.47)A (Q.48)D (Q.49)D (Q.50)B

(Q.51)C (Q.52)B (Q.53)D (Q.54)A (Q.55)B

(Q.56)A (Q.57)D (Q.58)B (Q.59)A (Q.60)D

(Q.61)D (Q.62)C (Q.63)C (Q.64)C (Q.65)D

(Q.66)D (Q.67)B (Q.68)C (Q.69)D (Q.70)D

(Q.71)D (Q.72)D (Q.73)A (Q.74)D (Q.75)B

(Q.76)D (Q.77)B (Q.78)B (Q.79)A (Q.80)A

(Q.81)D (Q.82)A (Q.83)B (Q.84)C (Q.85)B

(Q.86)D (Q.87)B (Q.88)D (Q.89)B (Q.90)C

(Q.91)D (Q.92)C (Q.93)A (Q.94)D (Q.95)B

(Q.96)A (Q.97)C (Q.98)D (Q.99)C (Q.100)A

(Q.101)B (Q.102)D (Q.103)A (Q.104)B (Q.105)D

(Q.106)B (Q.107)D (Q.108)B (Q.109)A (Q.110)D

(Q.111)C (Q.112)A (Q.113)A (Q.114)A (Q.115)D

(Q.116)B (Q.117)A (Q.118)A (Q.119)B (Q.120)A

(Q.121)B (Q.122)C (Q.123)B (Q.124)B (Q.125)B

(Q.126)B (Q.127)C (Q.128)C (Q.129)D (Q.130)C

(Q.131)B (Q.132)A (Q.133)A (Q.134)A (Q.135)B

(Q.136)C (Q.137)A (Q.138)B (Q.139)C (Q.140)C

(Q.141)A (Q.142)B (Q.143)D (Q.144)A (Q.145)C

(Q.146)A (Q.147)B (Q.148)A (Q.149)D (Q.150)A

(Q.151)D (Q.152)B (Q.153)B (Q.154)D (Q.155)D

(Q.156)A (Q.157)A (Q.158)C (Q.159)C (Q.160)C

(Q.161)D (Q.162)B (Q.163)C (Q.164)A (Q.165)C

(Q.166)B (Q.167)A (Q.168)B (Q.169)C (Q.170)D

(Q.171)C (Q.172)B (Q.173)C (Q.174)A (Q.175)A

(Q.176)A (Q.177)C (Q.178)B (Q.179)C (Q.180)A

(Q.181)C (Q.182)A (Q.183)C (Q.184)C (Q.185)C

(Q.186)C (Q.187)A (Q.188)B (Q.189)D (Q.190)D

(Q.191)A (Q.192)D (Q.193)A (Q.194)A (Q.195)B

(Q.196)A (Q.197)A (Q.198)C (Q.199)B (Q.200)A

Test Form No:-014KN5 For VH Candidates

(Q.1)A (Q.2)D (Q.3)C (Q.4)C (Q.5)B

(Q.6)B (Q.7)D (Q.8)A (Q.9)B (Q.10)D

(Q.11)B (Q.12)A (Q.13)C (Q.14)D (Q.15)C

(Q.16)C (Q.17)D (Q.18)A (Q.19)D (Q.20)D

(Q.21)D (Q.22)D (Q.23)B (Q.24)B (Q.25)B

(Q.26)B (Q.27)C (Q.28)B (Q.29)A (Q.30)C

(Q.31)B (Q.32)C (Q.33)C (Q.34)B (Q.35)B

(Q.36)B (Q.37)A (Q.38)D (Q.39)D (Q.40)B

(Q.41)C (Q.42)B (Q.43)B (Q.44)C (Q.45)D

(Q.46)B (Q.47)B (Q.48)D (Q.49)A (Q.50)D

(Q.51)C (Q.52)A (Q.53)B (Q.54)B (Q.55)B

(Q.56)D (Q.57)C (Q.58)A (Q.59)A (Q.60)A

(Q.61)A (Q.62)B (Q.63)C (Q.64)A (Q.65)B

(Q.66)D (Q.67)D (Q.68)B (Q.69)B (Q.70)A

(Q.71)A (Q.72)C (Q.73)A (Q.74)B (Q.75)C

(Q.76)C (Q.77)B (Q.78)A (Q.79)C (Q.80)C

(Q.81)B (Q.82)B (Q.83)C (Q.84)C (Q.85)B

(Q.86)D (Q.87)C (Q.88)B (Q.89)C (Q.90)D

(Q.91)C (Q.92)B (Q.93)A (Q.94)B (Q.95)D

(Q.96)B (Q.97)C (Q.98)A (Q.99)A (Q.100)C

(Q.101)C (Q.102)C (Q.103)C (Q.104)A (Q.105)B

(Q.106)C (Q.107)B (Q.108)D (Q.109)A (Q.110)D

(Q.111)B (Q.112)B (Q.113)A (Q.114)B (Q.115)D

(Q.116)C (Q.117)D (Q.118)A (Q.119)B (Q.120)C

(Q.121)B (Q.122)B (Q.123)C (Q.124)C (Q.125)C

(Q.126)C (Q.127)B (Q.128)B (Q.129)D (Q.130)B

(Q.131)A (Q.132)C (Q.133)C (Q.134)B (Q.135)A

(Q.136)A (Q.137)B (Q.138)C (Q.139)C (Q.140)B

(Q.141)B (Q.142)B (Q.143)C (Q.144)C (Q.145)D

(Q.146)B (Q.147)A (Q.148)A (Q.149)D (Q.150)B

(Q.151)D (Q.152)C (Q.153)B (Q.154)A (Q.155)B

(Q.156)D (Q.157)B (Q.158)C (Q.159)A (Q.160)B

(Q.161)B (Q.162)C (Q.163)C (Q.164)B (Q.165)D

(Q.166)B (Q.167)C (Q.168)B (Q.169)C (Q.170)D

(Q.171)C (Q.172)D (Q.173)A (Q.174)C (Q.175)A

(Q.176)C (Q.177)D (Q.178)A (Q.179)B (Q.180)D

(Q.181)D (Q.182)A (Q.183)D (Q.184)A (Q.185)A

(Q.186)B (Q.187)A (Q.188)B (Q.189)B (Q.190)B

(Q.191)B (Q.192)D (Q.193)B (Q.194)D (Q.195)D

(Q.196)C (Q.197)B (Q.198)D (Q.199)A (Q.200)C

Test Form No:-015PK5 For VH Candidates

(Q.1)D (Q.2)D (Q.3)D (Q.4)C (Q.5)D

(Q.6)C (Q.7)A (Q.8)A (Q.9)B (Q.10)C

(Q.11)C (Q.12)C (Q.13)A (Q.14)D (Q.15)D

(Q.16)D (Q.17)C (Q.18)D (Q.19)C (Q.20)D

(Q.21)B (Q.22)A (Q.23)D (Q.24)B (Q.25)C

(Q.26)A (Q.27)D (Q.28)B (Q.29)C (Q.30)A

(Q.31)D (Q.32)D (Q.33)D (Q.34)B (Q.35)C

(Q.36)C (Q.37)A (Q.38)C (Q.39)C (Q.40)B

(Q.41)C (Q.42)C (Q.43)B (Q.44)C (Q.45)C

(Q.46)C (Q.47)D (Q.48)B (Q.49)B (Q.50)C

(Q.51)B (Q.52)C (Q.53)B (Q.54)D (Q.55)A

(Q.56)A (Q.57)D (Q.58)A (Q.59)D (Q.60)B

(Q.61)C (Q.62)D (Q.63)D (Q.64)C (Q.65)C

(Q.66)D (Q.67)D (Q.68)D (Q.69)B (Q.70)C

(Q.71)B (Q.72)D (Q.73)D (Q.74)A (Q.75)D

(Q.76)A (Q.77)A (Q.78)D (Q.79)B (Q.80)B

(Q.81)B (Q.82)D (Q.83)A (Q.84)B (Q.85)C

(Q.86)C (Q.87)D (Q.88)B (Q.89)D (Q.90)B

(Q.91)D (Q.92)C (Q.93)A (Q.94)D (Q.95)B

(Q.96)A (Q.97)C (Q.98)D (Q.99)C (Q.100)A

(Q.101)D (Q.102)B (Q.103)D (Q.104)A (Q.105)B

(Q.106)A (Q.107)D (Q.108)B (Q.109)D (Q.110)B

(Q.111)A (Q.112)D (Q.113)C (Q.114)A (Q.115)A

(Q.116)A (Q.117)A (Q.118)B (Q.119)A (Q.120)B

(Q.121)B (Q.122)C (Q.123)C (Q.124)D (Q.125)B

(Q.126)C (Q.127)B (Q.128)B (Q.129)B (Q.130)A

(Q.131)B (Q.132)C (Q.133)A (Q.134)C (Q.135)B

(Q.136)A (Q.137)A (Q.138)C (Q.139)B (Q.140)A

(Q.141)C (Q.142)C (Q.143)A (Q.144)B (Q.145)D

(Q.146)A (Q.147)A (Q.148)D (Q.149)A (Q.150)B

(Q.151)A (Q.152)C (Q.153)C (Q.154)C (Q.155)D

(Q.156)D (Q.157)B (Q.158)B (Q.159)D (Q.160)D

(Q.161)A (Q.162)C (Q.163)B (Q.164)A (Q.165)B

(Q.166)C (Q.167)B (Q.168)C (Q.169)A (Q.170)C

(Q.171)A (Q.172)A (Q.173)D (Q.174)C (Q.175)B

(Q.176)C (Q.177)C (Q.178)A (Q.179)A (Q.180)C

(Q.181)B (Q.182)C (Q.183)A (Q.184)C (Q.185)A

(Q.186)C (Q.187)C (Q.188)A (Q.189)B (Q.190)A

(Q.191)A (Q.192)C (Q.193)B (Q.194)A (Q.195)B

(Q.196)D (Q.197)D (Q.198)A (Q.199)D (Q.200)A

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